Pro and Con 705

Posted 3-9-01

Incoming email

Re: Question About Rev. 11
There is something I don't understand.

I have read several times (in the P&Cís I think) that the two witnesses are on earth from the beginning of the tribulation until the middle of the tribulation. This is 1260 days after the pre-tribulation rapture. However, in Revelation 11:7-14, it seems clear that they are taken up and "...the same hour there was a great earthquake...the second woe is past...". The earthquake after they are taken up is the second woe. The second woe is the sixth trumpet. The trumpet judgements are happening on the day of Godís wrath which is at the end of the shortened tribulation on the 2300th day, not the 1260th day in the middle. It seems that the two witnesses are taken up after the day of Godís wrath has started since the asteroids hit as part of trumpets #2 and #3.

What am I missing?

My reply

The Tribulation is a parenthetical addition between the 6th and 7th millenniums. It is the "ends" of the ages (Age of the Gentiles, Age of the Jews, Age of the Church), a special trial that is to come upon the whole world (Rev. 3:10). I Cor. 10:11 says, "Now all these things happened unto them for ensamples: and they are written for our admonition, upon whom the ENDS of the world (lit., ages) are come."

Revelation is organized in a similar way. Between the 6th and 7th seals, the 6th and 7th trumpets, and the 6th and 7th vials, a parenthetical section is added. There are some other parenthetical sections besides these. Some information that we need to be caught up on is presented in each of these sections. The one you are asking about is between the 6th and 7th trumpets. In these parenthetical sections, we have to look for "match marks" to see where they belong in the chronology. The Lord did not want to make the account so simple to figure out that the unbelievers could understand it. Dan. 12:10 says, "Many shall be purified, and made white (Rev. 7:14), and TRIED; but the wicked shall do wickedly: and none of the wicked shall understand; but the wise shall understand."

Rev. 11:7 gives us a clue. It says, "when they (Moses and Elijah) shall have finished their testimony, the beast that ascendeth out of the bottomless pit shall make war against them, and shall overcome them, and kill them."

This beast is Satan. Rev. 17:8 says, "The beast that thou sawest was (in Judas Iscariot), and is not (in man now); and shall ascend out of the bottomless pit (and possess the False Prophet), and go into perdition: and they that dwell on the earth shall wonder, whose names were not written in the book of life from the foundation of the world, when they behold the beast that was (in man), and is not (in man now), and yet is" (still exists).

Rev. 12 gives us an account of the last 1260 days (12:6,14) of the Tribulation. In the middle of the Tribulation, Satan is "cast out into the earth," and has 1260 days left before dominion is taken away from him at the Judgment of the Nations. His 1260 days are not shortened. Those days are shortened for the elect (Mt. 24:21,22) who are caught up to Heaven in the Pre-Wrath Rapture, not for those left on Earth.

When Satan is "cast out into the earth" Mid-Trib, he ascends "out of the bottomless pit" and possesses the False Prophet. He immediately goes to the temple and "sitteth in the temple of God, shewing himself that he is God" (II Thess. 2:4). Evidently Moses and Elijah are there teaching. They will not bow down to him or his image. Therefore, he kills them.

Since Moses and Elijah are killed Mid-Trib, the 1260 days of their prophesying ends Mid-Trib. Therefore the 1260 days of Rev. 11:3 is the first half of the Tribulation. The earthquake that kills 7000 is only at Jerusalem, "the city" (11:13) "where also our Lord was crucified" (11:8).

The earthquake in which every wall shall fall is worldwide. The cities of the nations will fall, the dead will lie around the Earth, not just the 7000 killed at Jerusalem. Eze. 38:20 says, "ALL the men that are upon the face of the earth, shall shake at my presence (paneh, face, the Sign of the Son of Man), and the mountains (asteroids of Rev. 8:8,10) shall be thrown down, and the steep places shall fall, and EVERY wall shall fall to the ground." Rev. 16:18-20 says, "there were voices, and thunders, and lightnings; and there was a great earthquake, such as was not since men were upon the earth, (greater than the one that hit Jerusalem 3.5 days after Mid-Trib) so mighty an earthquake, and so great. And the great city (Jerusalem) was divided into three parts, and the cities of the nations fell: and great Babylon came in remembrance before God, to give unto her the cup of the wine of the fierceness of his wrath. And every island fled away, and the mountains were not found."

The earthquake at Jerusalem is 3.5 days after Mid-Trib. The worldwide earthquake happens when the asteroids of Rev. 8:8,10 impact Earth on the 2300th day (Dan. 8:13,14) of the shortened Tribulation. Agape

Incoming email

Re: abad
I am still uncertain about the translation of Isaiah 57:1. After some studying, I came up with the following:
"Gesenius has for "abad", to wander"
One nuance of the verb abad is "to go astray" in the sense of "wandering." This can be found in Deut. 26:5 (KJV); "A Syrian ready to perish (abad) was my father," or (NAS) "My father was a wandering (abad) Aramean." There is no sense that "wandering" ever refers to "escaping", but only the sense of "to go astray."

"Gesenius has for "abad", to ... disappear"
The verb may mean "to disappear," but this is in the sense of "to be lost." Eze. 19:5, "her hope was lost (abad)," or Eze. 34:4, "have ye sought that which was lost (abad)." "Disappear" or "to be lost" does not even hint of a "escaping from."

"Strong's has wander away, escape. For it to mean not escape, there has to be something else added to the word." Strong's lists one definition as "+ not escape". Nowhere does Strong's list abad as escape. What this means is that there is a rendering when used in connection with "abad" that translates to "not escape." This can be found in Psalm 142:4, (KJV) "refuge failed me," {refuge(4498-manowc, a retreat, a fleeing, escape, way to flee, refuge) failed (6-abad) me." Psalm 142:4, (NAS) "There is no escape for me," "There is no (abad) escape (manowc) for me," or in it's own translation (NAS) "escape has perished from me," "escape (manowc) has perished (abad) from me."

"To perish" and "to escape" have two totally opposite meanings. "Abad" is used in the scripture abut 120 times with the meaning "to die, utterly destroy, go to ruin, to succumb, to be carried off to death or destruction, break, not escape, and have no way to escape."

I still cannot reason how Isaiah 57:1, "The righteous perisheth" can be translated to mean "the righteous escape alive in a rapture." Is there any translation NIV, NAS, KJV, etc. that uses the almost absolute opposite meaning of "escape alive" instead of "perish?" When I look up the words escape, escaped, fled, fly away, away, deliver, delivered, deliverance, depart, departed, etc. in Strong's, the word "abad" is never referenced. Since Isaiah used the word "malat (4422)" meaning "to escape, to release or rescue" in Isa. 20:6, I wonder why he didn't use this word if he meant to convey escaping instead of perishing?"

I like your web site and your perseverance. Listening for His return on Pentecost.

My reply

Thanks for your kind words.

Abad means escape. It has another word added to mean not escape. Strong's has "+ not escape." However, if you take it to mean nothing more than wander away, the verse still is clearly talking about merciful and righteous men being taken away, vanishing, from the Tribulation to come.

Isaiah 57:1 says, "The righteous perisheth (abad, 'to be lost, to lose oneself, to wander...to disappear as it were,' Gesenius; 'wander away,' Strong's), and no man layeth it to heart: and merciful men are taken away (acaph, to gather up to one, to be collected, gathered together, to be taken away, to vanish; Gesenius), none considering that the righteous is taken away (acaph, to vanish) from the evil (Tribulation) to come."

> > Since Isaiah used the word "malat (4422)" meaning "to escape, to release or rescue" in Isa. 20:6, I wonder why he didn't use this word if he meant to convey escaping instead of perishing?"

Isaiah did not choose the words. The Lord did. II Tim. 3:16 says, "All scripture is given by inspiration of God, and is profitable for doctrine, for reproof, for correction, for instruction in righteousness." Chances are good that Isaiah did not know the full meaning of this. I Peter 1:10,11 says, "Of which salvation the prophets have enquired and searched diligently, who prophesied of the grace that should come unto you: Searching what, or what manner of time the Spirit of Christ which was in them did signify, when it testified beforehand the sufferings of Christ, and the glory that should follow." Agape

Incoming e-mail

From: CAPS. Re: PASSOVER/REVISITED AGAIN
Marilyn, the phrase in Leviticus 23:5 "IN the FOURTEENTH day of the first month at even..." DOES NOT mean "in the 13th day at even..." If it was the 13th day, then it would have said "In the 13th day of the month at even..." BUT IT DIDN'T.

The same EXACT way of counting is used only a few verses later in 23:32 where it says "IN the ninth day of the month at even...which obviously means ON THE 9TH DAY JUST BEFORE sunset of the 10th day which was the Day of Atonement.

Likewise, in 23:5 "on the 14th day of the month at even" is the 14th day of the month shortly before sunset of the 15th day of the month which began the 1st Day of U.B.

This is easy. It is not complicated. I do not feel it correct to say you can interpret the EXACT same Hebrew phrase used to count one day and then say "you have to look at the context." The same words are used . The same subject is being discussed, that is , the COUNTING OF THE DAYS OF THE FEASTS. To say it is a different way used is tantamount to saying in Genesis ch. 1 that one day started differently than another day.

The scripture is CONSISTENT, INSPIRED. We need to bend our understanding to what is clear and not try to exlpain it away to "fit" what we have previously believed. Notice I said "we", not "you."

The Passover is Nisan 14 not Nisan 13. "In the fourteenth day of the month at even is the Lord's Passover." The 14th is not the 13th. It really is that simple. God Bless you studies.

PS: Here are some verses from Exodus chapter 12 that again show the way the days of Unleavened Bread were counted. LOOK ESPECIALLY AT VERSE 18. This is undeniable.

12:15 Seven days shall ye eat unleavened bread; even the first day ye shall put away leaven out of your houses: for whosoever eateth leavened bread from the first day until the seventh day, that soul shall be cut off from Israel.
12:16 And in the first day there shall be an holy convocation, and in the seventh day there shall be an holy convocation to you; no manner of work shall be done in them, save that which every man must eat, that only may be done of you.
12:17 And ye shall observe the feast of unleavened bread; for in this selfsame day have I brought your armies out of the land of Egypt: therefore shall ye observe this day in your generations by an ordinance for ever.
12:18 In the first month, on the fourteenth * * day of the month at even, ye shall eat unleavened bread, until the one and twentieth day of the month at even.

Marilyn, again and again I say the 14th is Not the 13th. Verse 18 above again is a "witness" that the 14th day at evening is the time when the 15th day was getting ready to start. The 15th through the 21st of Nisan is the Feast of Unleavened Bread. ALL THESE SCRIPTURES ARE CONSISTENT. Also, they are very plain. Please don't try to say they are to be be interpreted in some complicated way. Just read them for what they say.

My reply

I tried to attach a chart of Passion Week....The chart makes understanding the Jewish days of Passion Week so much easier than lots of written text. I think this is a case where a picture might be worth a 1000 words.

> > > It makes no difference what the Jews claim.

> > {THEN WHY DID YOU QUOTE THEM ???}

It is interesting to note what they believe and say, and many times they help us understand the Bible. I have learned important things from Josephus. However, when what they say is at odds with Scripture, I know you would agree that we naturally have to stick to Scripture.

> > {MARILYN, YOU ARE THE ONE WHO QUOTED THE JEWISH WRITERS. I WAS ONLY EXPLAINING WHY THEY SAID WHAT THEY DID ! }

You said,
> > Marilyn, as I have previously said the terminology changed over the centuries. The Jews and their writers regarded the 15th of Nisan as the Passover.

This is a case where I accept the Bible over the Jewish writers. Lev. 23:5,6 says, "In the fourteenth day of the first month at even (when the 14th begins) is the LORD's passover (all 24 hours of the 14th). And on the fifteenth day of the same month is the feast of unleavened bread." In Egypt, they were to choose a lamb on Nisan 10, and "keep it up until the fourteenth day of the same month (as the 14th was beginning): and the whole assembly of the congregation of Israel shall kill it in the evening (as the night of Nisan 14 was beginning)...And they shall eat the flesh in that night (the night that followed the first evening), roast with fire...let nothing of it remain until the morning...eat it in haste: for it is the LORD'S passover. For I will pass through the land of Egypt THIS NIGHT" (at midnight of the 14th, i.e., 6 hours after the 14th began). There is no other midnight for Nisan 14. Look at the chart. The Passover is the 14th and Unleavened Bread is the 15th. The pass over in Egypt took place at midnight on the 14th.

> > the phrase in Leviticus 23:5 "IN the FOURTEENTH day of the first month at even..........." DOES NOT mean "in the 13th day at even....." If it was the 13th day , then it would have said "In the 13th day of the month at even..."BUT IT DIDN'T.
> > The same EXACT way of counting is used only a few verses later in 23:32 where it says "IN the ninth day of the month at even........which obviously means ON THE 9TH DAY JUST BEFORE sunset of the 10th day which was the Day of Atonement.

It is not "The same EXACT way of counting." In the first paragraph, you are making Nisan 15 masquerade as Nisan 14. You are actually skipping the whole 24 hours of Nisan 14, placing the pass over at midnight on the 15th instead of where it belongs, at midnight on the 14th.

People that do this lose one whole 24-hour day in their thinking. They seem to think in terms of our days instead of Jewish days. That is misleading because we tend to think of midnight ending our 24-hour day, but midnight came 6 hours after the date began for the Jews. There were still 18 hours to go for that date, 6 more hours of night and 12 hours of day that had to be accounted for. We need to account for 24 hours for every date.

Lev. 23:32 shows us how to count all the days, from 6 PM when the previous day ended and the new date began to the next 6 PM. At 6 PM, Nisan 13 became Nisan 14. Then there were 12 hours of night before the 12 hours of day. At 6 PM on Tishri 9, Tishri 10 began. Tishri 10 first had 12 hours of night then 12 hours of day before Tishri 11 began. Likewise, Nisan 13 changes to Nisan 14 at 6 PM on the 13th and lasts until 12 hours of night and 12 hours of day have passed.

> > To say it is a different way used is tantamount to saying in Genesis ch. 1 that one day started differently than another day.

Every day is the same. It starts at 6 PM on the previous day and has 12 hours of night then 12 hours of day. However, it can be said that each date has a first even and a last even.

> > 12:15 Seven days shall ye eat unleavened bread; even the first day ye shall put away leaven out of your houses: for whosoever eateth leavened bread from the first day until the seventh day, that soul shall be cut off from Israel.

The seven days are Nisan (1) 15, (2) 16, (3) 17, (4) 18, (5) 19, (6) 20, and (7) 21. They run from 6 PM as the 14th becomes the 15th to 6 PM as the 21st becomes the 22nd. That is Jewish inclusive reckoning, where the 1st date is counted as #1. By our way of reckoning, we would say from the 15th to the 16th is the 1st day, from the 16th to the 17th is the 2nd day, from the 17th to the 18th is the 3rd day, from the 18th to the 19th is the 4th day, from the 19th to the 20th is the 5th day, from the 20th to the 21st is the 6th day.

> > 12:16 And in the first day there shall be an holy convocation, and in the seventh day there shall be an holy convocation

These sabbaths are the 15th and 21st.

> > 12:17 And ye shall observe the feast of unleavened bread; for in this selfsame day have I brought your armies out of the land of Egypt: therefore shall ye observe this day in your generations by an ordinance for ever.

"kill the PASSOVER...strike the lintel and the two side posts with the blood, and none of you shall go out at the door of his house until the MORNING (daylight of the 14th)...It is the sacrifice of the LORD'S PASSOVER...it came to pass, that at MIDNIGHT (Nisan 14) the LORD smote all the firstborn in the land of Egypt...And Pharaoh rose up in THE NIGHT (the 14th)...And he called for Moses and Aaron BY NIGHT (the 14th), and said, RISE UP, AND GET YOU FORTH from among my people...the Egyptians were urgent upon the people, that they might send them out of the land in haste...And the people took their dough before it was leavened...and they borrowed of the Egyptians jewels of silver, and jewels of gold, and raiment...And the children of Israel journeyed from Rameses to Succoth, about six hundred thousand on foot that were men, beside children...they were thrust out of Egypt, and could not tarry, neither had they prepared for themselves any victual....It is a NIGHT (the 14th) to be much observed unto the LORD FOR BRINGING THEM OUT FROM THE LAND OF EGYPT: this is THAT NIGHT (the 14th) of the LORD to be observed of all the children of Israel in their generations. And the LORD said unto Moses and Aaron, This is the ordinance of the PASSOVER (Nisan 14)" (Ex. 12:21-43).

It is obvious that they were in the process of breaking camp and leaving Egypt during the 12 hours of daylight still left after the start of the morning of the 14th, although they did take time to borrow from the Egyptians. Remember, they were to be dressed with their shoes on the night of the 14th. There were so many people plus their flocks, that they were not all out of Rameses until the 15th. Ex. 12:17 says, "ye shall observe the feast of unleavened bread; for in this selfsame day have I brought your armies out of the land of Egypt." The LORD brought them "out from the land of Egypt" on the 14th (Ex. 12:42,43) and "out of the land of Egypt" on the 15th (Ex. 12:17). Both things are true.

> > 12:18 In the first month, on the fourteenth * * day of the month at even, ye shall eat unleavened bread, until the one and twentieth day of the month at even. > > Marilyn, again and again I say the 14th is Not the 13th.

I say that the 14th is not the 15th, and of course the 14th is not the 13th, either. It just starts as 6 PM rolls around on the 13th. They don't really overlap at all. It is actually the 13th until 5:59 PM and the 14th from 6 PM on for the next 24 hours.

> > Verse 18 above again is a "witness" that the 14th day at evening is the time when the 15th day was getting ready to start.

In this verse, it is. Every day started at 6 PM on the previous date. Here the 15th starts at 6 PM on the 14th, just as the 14th started at 6 PM on the 13th, and the 13th began at 6 PM on the 12th, and the 12th began at 6 PM on the 11th, and the 11th began at 6 PM on the 10th.

We have to determine from the context whether the first evening is meant or the last evening. Each date has a first evening and a last evening. In Ex. 12:18, the last evening of the 14th is indicated, and the last evening of the 21st is too. The way we know here which is meant is that the 15th day that started at 6 PM on the 14th is the Feast of Unleavened Bread. Agape

Incoming email

Re: WHEAT IN BK OF RUTH
Marilyn Agee has brought it to my attentioned that I errored in an earlier post in saying that there was no mention of "wheat" in the book of Ruth. Apparently I read through it so fast I missed one verse that contains the word "wheat". Let's examine this and see if this changes anything...

Ruth 2:23 (JB) says, "So she stayed with Boaz's work-women, and gleaned until the BARLEY AND WHEAT HARVESTS WERE FINISHED."

Now does this change anything? Not much as far as I can tell. When we get into Chapter 3, we find only barley mentioned as being on the threshing floor. So there's two possibilities this gives us...

It was not yet Pentecost
Ruth 2:23 is placed at Pentecost or shortly thereafter One could say that the absence of any mention of wheat means that Ruth chapter 3 is backtracking in time to describe events that happened BEFORE Ruth 2:23. Genesis 2:4-etal backtracks to Gen 1:27, so this does happen in scripture. Not everything can be described so neatly.

However, if Ruth is perfectly chronological, then the events in Ruth 3 must have been close to Pentecost, simply because there was barley on the threshing floor. It's possible that they brought the wheat into the barns, but had not finished threshing the barley yet, and did not want to get started threshing the wheat until the barley was finished. So Genesis 3:1 could have happened a week or so after Pentecost for all we know.

But in my previous post, one assumption I made was that Ruth and Boaz would have waited until after Pentecost to get married based on typical Jewish customs. If Ruth 3:1 begins shortly after Pentecost, then it basically means we have no waiting period necessary between the redemption and the marriage. So let's recap Ruth...

Ruth chapter 1: Ruth of Moab commits herself to Naomi
Ruth 2: Ruth meets Boaz and gleans in his fields until Pentecost or shortly thereafter
Ruth 3: Ruth goes to Boaz while he is sleeping and shames him into redeeming her. She does this in several ways...
Ruth 3:7 Removing his sandals - There is a ceremony that shames a person via removing his sandals if he refuses to marry his brother's line (See Deuteronomy 25:9)
Ruth 3:9 Asking him to cover her with his garment. Since Boaz was a Jew, at the corner of his garment should have been tzitzit (Num 15:38). The tzitzit is suppose to remind a Jew of G-d's Word (Num 15:39). God's word commanded a man to redeem a woman in his brother's line. (Dtr 25). So covering Ruth with Boaz's garment would have reminded Boaz that he was obligated by G-d's Torah to redeem Boaz, and if he didn't, he would be put to shame.
Ruth is given 6 measures of barley in her shawl
Ruth goes back to her mother.
Ruth 4: Boaz redeems her and is blessed at the gates
Ruth 4:13: They marry
Now when I read this in the Peshat (A term we use in the Messianic synagogues to refer to the "simple" interpretation) and the Remetz (reading between the lines), I see nothing that hints of the timing other than "around Pentecost".

But as I was re-reading this to make certain I didn't post something wrong again, I did find some clues in the sod that hint of a timing. In Ruth 3:15, Boaz gives her 6 measures of barley in her "covering". Perhaps this verse is saying that 6 of the 7 weeks are over. Why did Boaz give this to her? His reasoning was "Don't go back to your mother-in-law empty-handed". Now if the "mother" represents Jerusalem (Galatians 4:26 But the Jerusalem that is above is free, and she is our mother).

The Torah forbids people from being empty-handed on the following circumstances:
The 3 pilgrimage feasts; Dtr 16:16 says that at Feast of Unleavened Bread, the Feast of Weeks and the Feast of Tabernacles, no one is to appear empty-handed. This would certainly fit Ruth since she was going to her mother (Jerusalem) at the time.
Dtr 15:13 - When a slave is set free. This too, would fit Ruth since she was being redeemed by Boaz. This is also seen in Exodus 3:21, when the Israelites left Egypt (land of slavery) far from empty handed.

Now when Ruth goes to her mother (Jerusalem) with 6 measures of barley in her "covering", her mother tells her Boaz "will not rest until the matter is settled TODAY". Barley is offered on firstfruits, a time when Dtr 16:16 says no one is to appear before the L-RD empty handed in Jerusalem. The death and resurrection of Y'shua is symbolized in Passover and Firstfruits (the days He died and Rose Again on) to "cover" our sins. Boaz means "in strength" and G-d tells us in Ex 6:6-7 He redeemed Israel "with an outstretched arm". So I can definitely see the redemption of Boaz and Ruth in Ruth 4 as happening at firstfruits.

Could it be Pentecost? After all, that was another feast day in which no one was to appear "empty handed"! Maybe, but only if you assume that Pentecost was the START of the Wheat harvest and not the end of it as some have suggested it. And you assume that Firstfruits is the first non-sabbath day after Passover, and not the first day of the week that follows Passover. Why do I say that?

Suppose the 6 measure of barley represent 6 weeks from Firstfruits to Pentecost. After all, The Omer Sefirah period was "measured" in "weeks" according to the interpretation that Firstfruits is the first non-sabbath day after Passover (Aviv 16 or 17). But this parallel doesn't work if you place Firstfruits on the first day of the week after Passover, since the equating of "measure" with "week" no longer has a direct connection. Now if they were harvesting wheat 3 weeks prior to Pentecost, then this symbolism breaks down and makes no sense whatsoever - she should have had a mixture of barley and wheat in her hands if that where the case.

But anyway, suppose this is the case, the earliest they would likely have gotten married 6 weeks after Firstfruits would have been the day of Pentecost.

Could it be Sukkot (the third holiday to be in Jerusalem)? Maybe, but I just don't see a connection to anything if that's the case.

Typically, Jews were betrothed a year or so before they got married. So if Ruth was "redeemed" and therefore "betrothed" in Ruth chapter 4, tradition would have them marry sometime in the following year. So for the most part, I really see Ruth as a story about the redemption of the bride, and not about the rapture.

But what do I know? I'm just someone who has "nothing better to do than to find fault with others research [sic] do some ORIGINAL studies"

(http://web.singnet.com.sg/~spirit5/letters/feb2001/caps228-1.htm). And since this came from me, well, it sure can't be original. [Of course, that's good because it means it originally came from G-d, whereas if it originally came from me, then it's not from G-d and you don't want to read it.] So I'll go back in my corner now and quit posting, since I'm sure no one gets anything out of what I have to say. Perhaps I shouldn't have written this. I'll stop unless you guys write in and tell me to keep going, because I've been criticized enough now.

So yes, "wheat" does appear somewhere, but overall, no, I don't see where this changes anything from the final conclusions I posted before. Shalom

PS: And thanks, Marylin, for pointing that out to me!

My reply

> > If Ruth 3:1 begins shortly after Pentecost, then it basically means we have no waiting period necessary between the redemption and the marriage.

There seems to be a waiting period, anyway. I think the Marriage of the Lamb will be the same day as the Pre-Wrath Rapture. The 144,000 are also "firstfruits (Rev. 14:4,5).

> > In Ruth 3:15, Boaz gives her 6 measures of barley in her "covering". Perhaps this verse is saying that 6 of the 7 weeks are over.

Since this account is really God-breathed, I suspect that you are right. I had not thought about that before. Thanks for sharing your insight. What I had related it to was the 6000 years. Of course, it could indicate both. The Lord doesn't miss a trick. Maybe they harvested barley for 3 weeks and wheat for 3 weeks and were now beginning to winnow the barley. They could finish the barley half way through the final week and the wheat during the last half of the week.

The sheaf of barley was waved on the Feast of Firstfruits. The 2 loaves of wheat bread are waved on Pentecost. These mark the beginning and ending of the first of the firstfruits harvest. Ex. 23:16,19 says of "the feast of harvest (Feast of Weeks/Pentecost), the firstfruits of thy labours, which thou hast sown in the field (world)...The FIRST of the firstfruits of thy land thou shalt bring into the house of the LORD thy God." This seems to pre-shadow the first "trump of God" (I Thess. 4:16), sounded at the first Rapture. The last of the firstfruits are the 144,000 caught up at the "last trump" (I Cor. 15:51,52; Rev. 14:4,5).

Please know that you should share your insights, regardless of criticism. The enemy would sure see to it that you got more than your share of criticism to stop you, if that would do it. I just think of it as washing over me like water off a duck's back, and get more determined than ever to do the Lord's work to the best of my ability. Don't take anything people say to heart, letting it ruffle your feathers. When it boils down to it, it is just you and the Lord. Pray for his leading and do your part, regardless, and don't let criticism fly back and forth, giving as well as getting. You don't have to answer to human beings, only to God. Turn the other cheek and "above all things have fervent charity (agape, God's love) among yourselves: for charity shall cover the multitude of sins...As every man hath received the gift, even so minister the same one to another, as good stewards of the manifold grace of God" (I Peter 4:8,10). Agape

   Pro and Con 705   Or Return   Home


Contact me for more information at: mjagee@pe.net


Send me e-mail now


8641 Sugar Gum Rd, Riverside, CA 92508, USA; (909) 653-4110


© 1996-2001, Marilyn J. Agee
Updated 3-9-01